This is a linkpost for Von Neumann–Morgenstern utility theorem, which shows that one accepts 4 premises if and only if one maximises expected utility. In my mind, all the 4 premises are self-evident. So I do not see how one can reject maximising expected utility in principle. Relatedly, I think the Repugnant Conclusion follows from 3 self-evident premises.
In 1947, John von Neumann and Oskar Morgenstern proved that any individual whose preferences satisfied four axioms [premises] has a utility function, where such an individual's preferences can be represented on an interval scale [which "allows for defining the degree of difference between measurements"] and the individual will always prefer actions that maximize expected utility.[1] That is, they proved that an agent is (VNM-)rational [has preferences satisfying the 4 axioms] if and only if there exists a real-valued function u defined by possible outcomes such that every preference of the agent is characterized by maximizing the expected value of u, which can then be defined as the agent's VNM-utility (it is unique up to affine transformations i.e. adding a constant and multiplying by a positive scalar). No claim is made that the agent has a "conscious desire" to maximize u, only that u exists.
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Completeness assumes that an individual has well defined preferences:
Axiom 1 (Completeness) For any lotteries and , either or .
(the individual must express some preference or indifference[4]). Note that this implies reflexivity.
Transitivity assumes that preferences are consistent across any three options:
Axiom 2 (Transitivity) If and , then .
Continuity assumes that there is a "tipping point" between being better than and worse than a given middle option:
Axiom 3 (Continuity): If , then there exists a probability such that
where the notation on the left side refers to a situation in which is received with probability and is received with probability .
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Independence assumes that a preference holds independently of the probability of another outcome.
Axiom 4 (Independence): For any and (with the "irrelevant" part of the lottery underlined):
if and only if
In other words, the probabilities involving cancel out and don't affect our decision, because the probability of is the same in both lotteries.
Why do you consider completeness self-evident? (Or continuity, although I'm more sympathetic to that one.)
Also, it's important not to conflate "given these axioms, your preferences can be represented as maximizing expected utility w.r.t. some utility function" with "given these axioms [and a precise probability distribution representing your beliefs], you ought to make decisions by maximizing expected value, where 'value' is given by the axiology you actually endorse." I'd recommend this paper on the topic (especially Sec. 4), and Sec. 2.2 here.
Hi Anthony,
I think completeness is self-evident because "the individual must express some preference or indifference". Reality forces them to do so. For example, if they donate to organisation A over B, at least implicitly, they imply donating to A is as good or better than donating to B. If they decide to keep the money for personal consumption, at least implicitly, they imply that is as good or better than donating.
I believe continuity is self-evident because rejecting it implies seemingly non-sensical decisions. For example, if one prefers 100 $ over 10 $, and this over 1 $, continuity says there is a probability p such that one is indifferent between 10 $ and a lottery involving a probability p of winning 1 $, and 1 - p of winning 100 $. One would prefer the lottery with p = 0 over 10 $, because then one would be certain to win 100 $. One would prefer 10 $ over the lottery with p = 1, because then one would be certain to win 1 $. If there was not a tipping point between preferring the lottery or 10 $, one would have to be insensitive to an increased probability of an outcome better than 10 $ (100 $), and a decreased probability of an outcome worse than 10 $ (1 $), which I see as non-sensical.
Thanks! I'll just respond re: completeness for now.
Maximizing expected utility is not the same as maximizing expected value. The latter assumes risk neutrality, but vNM is totally consistent with maximizing expected utility under arbitrary levels of risk aversion, meaning that it doesn't provide support for your view expressed elsewhere that risk aversion is inconsistent with vNM.
The key point is that there is a subtle difference between maximizing a linear combination of outcomes, vs maximizing a linear combination of some transformation of outcomes. That transformation can be arbitrarily concave, such that we would end up making a risk averse decision.
Thanks for the comment, Karthik! I strongly upvoted it. I have changed "expected value" to "expected utility" in this post, and updated to the following the last paragraph of the comment of mine you linked to.
I am extremely sympathetic to vNM, but think it's not constructive. I think the world is too high-dimensional, and in some sense we are low compute agents in a high compute world. See here for a bit more background.
In practice, I think vNM works as an idealization of the values of a high or infinite compute agent, but because making it constructive is very expensive, sometimes the best action is not to go through with that but to fall back on heuristics or shortcuts, heuristics which you won't be sure of either (again, as low compute agents in a higher complexity world).
Thanks, Nuño. I strongly endorse maximising expected welfare, but I very much agree with using heuristics. At the same time, I would like to see more cost-effectiveness analyses.
I don't think any of the axioms are self-evident. FWIW, I don't really think anything is self-evident, maybe other than direct logical deductions and applications of definitions.
I have some sympathy for rejecting each of them, except maybe transitivity, which I'm pretty strongly inclined not to give up. I give weight to views that violate the other axioms, under normative uncertainty.
Some ways you might reject them:
Continuity doesn't imply your utility function is bounded, just that it never takes on the value "infinity", ie for any value it takes on, there are higher and lower values that can be averaged to reach that value.
Thanks, Michael.
In practice, I think the effects of one's actions decay to practically 0 after 100 years or so. In principle, I am open one's actions having effects which are arbitrarily large, but not infinite, and continuity does not rule out arbitrarily large effects.
Reality forces us to compare outcomes, at least implicitly.
I just do not see how adding the same possibility to each of 2 lotteries can change my assessment of these.